No Other Irredeemable Mark

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Not By Might, Nor By Power, But By My Spirit Over The Cities Of Israel No Literal Hell, Only Literal Judgement Fall On Us Faith, Hope And Charity Introduction An Octal Constructed The Most Excellent Way And The Tables Turn	No Other Irredeemable Mark The proof referenced is found in the second and later editions of the book only. I will argue that there is no similar irredeemable fault before God under the law of faith. Simply repeat the proof in Chapter 15 with "raptured" replaced by "forgiven". Then, repeat the proof. "SAVED" once more becomes only salvation from the captivity under the law of Moses redeemed by Christ fulfilling the law - and so applies only to redeemable faults, and "saved" <=> ¬SAVED, where "saved" is equivalent to further and necessarily required forgiveness, that is, a second dispensation of grace beyond that of the cross to account for a "second death" (An irredeemable fault under the current law of faith.) Then given a person faulty, depending on which dispensation acts as virtue we find either Pos(saved & ¬SAVED)=> "forgiven" or instead Pos(SAVED & ¬saved) => "redeemed". So, if the "fault" is not redeemable we would expect Pos(saved & ¬SAVED) to be a positive determination, (with saved a virtue) and also one found necessary! So, I find N¬Pos(SAVED & ¬saved) and so as virtue, N(Pos(saved))=> N¬Pos(SAVED) because there is nothing positive in ¬saved or ¬SAVED which drop out from the two held in disjunction. So I immediately find that disjunction SAVED v saved&SAVED^-1 => forgiven. But, if the cross still is an ultrafilter intact, then Pos(SAVED^-1) is axiomatically false and so with both ultrafilters intact as virtue, I may only have SAVED v saved. (And this position is then inclusive of the lukewarm, sitting on the fence). The truth is that "saved" is an empty set! We need the term "faulty" to then make sense. "faulty" is a term beyond the redemption of the gospel. It "brings the mark". "marked => not forgiven" and "forgiven => not marked". (As if axiom 15.8.1) "saved => forgiven" (axiom 15.8.2). So, faulty & ¬saved => "marked" or equivalently: "faulty & ¬forgiven => marked". (Which is consistent. axiom 15.8.3) So forgiven => (saved & "not faulty") => "not faulty". There is the analogue of axiom 15.8.7 where P(faulty & SAVED) is noted. SAVED => forgiven just as if SAVED => raptured. (axiom 15.8.8) Then this axiom would state that Christians automatically receive forgiveness in a second dispensation (just as they would be raptured). However this states the cross of Christ is insufficient and Christ did not speak truth with his last breaths by uttering "It is finished". (The cross is sufficient for all grace.) Likewise, Christ need not be crucified twice, His work of redemption was complete. So, SAVED v marked as before (axiom 15.8.9), and I again find SAVED v saved, one dispensation is sufficient at any time. So, SAVED v forgiven. Then given axiom 15.8.13 becomes "marked => ¬saved & faulty" the proof in the book is complete. So, marked <=> forgiven (Theorem 15.8.15) and one could wonder what the issue is if all faults outside of the law are automatically forgiven to a Christian, but that is surely a fallacy of equivocation. The point is that the cross was assumed to be ineffective and that a second dispensation was required, which denies all grace and salvation. So, someone is not "saved always saved". and denying the true gospel for other gospels will leave you not redeemed. (And not irredeemable, which is the point I make.) Rom 8:33 Who shall lay any thing to the charge of God’s elect? It is God that justifieth. (KJV) The argument is then that all faults are forgiven under the laws of grace, given that the only fault found before God is of one under the condemnation of the law. (Or a lack of faith under the new covenant.) Rom 8:31 What shall we then say to these things? If God be for us, who can be against us? Rom 8:32 He that spared not his own Son, but delivered him up for us all, how shall he not with him also freely give us all things? (KJV) So, there is no such "mark" as there is no "second dispensation". Rather all comfort is found in the realisation that there is no "depth" as of Romans (ch 8:v38-39) that can remove someone truly repentant (and holding faith on Christ) from their redemption, and from Christ's provision of the "first resurrection". Rom 8:38 For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, Rom 8:39 Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord. (KJV) Continue To Next Page Return To Section Start Return To Previous Page